[UPDATED 2024] Read CPTIA Study Guide Cover to Cover as Literally
100% Real & Accurate CPTIA Questions and Answers with Free and Fast Updates
NEW QUESTION # 17
John, a professional hacker, is trying to perform APT attack on the target organization network. He gains access to a single system of a target organization and tries to obtain administrative login credentials to gain further access to the systems in the network using various techniques.
What phase of the advanced persistent threat lifecycle is John currently in?
- A. Expansion
- B. Persistence
- C. Initial intrusion
- D. Search and exfiltration
Answer: A
Explanation:
The phase described where John, after gaining initial access, is attempting to obtain administrative credentials to further access systems within the network, is known as the 'Expansion' phase of an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) lifecycle. This phase involves the attacker expanding their foothold within the target's environment, often by escalating privileges, compromising additional systems, and moving laterally through the network. The goal is to increase control over the network and maintain persistence for ongoing access.
This phase follows the initial intrusion and sets the stage for establishing long-term presence and eventual data exfiltration or other malicious objectives.References:
* MITRE ATT&CK Framework, specifically the tactics related to Credential Access and Lateral Movement
* "APT Lifecycle: Detecting the Undetected," a whitepaper by CyberArk
NEW QUESTION # 18
John is a professional hacker who is performing an attack on the target organization where he tries to redirect the connection between the IP address and its target server such that when the users type in the Internet address, it redirects them to a rogue website that resembles the original website. He tries this attack using cache poisoning technique. Identify the type of attack John is performing on the target organization.
- A. Pretexting
- B. Pharming
- C. War driving
- D. Skimming
Answer: B
Explanation:
Pharming is a cyber attack intended to redirect a website's traffic to another, bogus website. By poisoning a DNS server's cache, attackers can redirect users from the site they intended to visit to one that is malicious, without the user's knowledge or any action on their part, such as clicking a deceptive link. This technique is particularly insidious because it can affect well-intentioned users who type the correct URL into their browsers but are still redirected. War driving involves searching for wireless networks from a moving vehicle, skimming refers to stealing credit card information using a device placed on ATMs or point-of-sale terminals, and pretexting is a form of social engineering where the attacker lies to obtain privileged data.References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification program covers a variety of cyber attacks and techniques, including DNS poisoning and pharming, explaining how attackers exploit vulnerabilities to redirect users to fraudulent sites.
NEW QUESTION # 19
An organization suffered many major attacks and lost critical information, such as employee records, and financial information. Therefore, the management decides to hire a threat analyst to extract the strategic threat intelligence that provides high-level information regarding current cyber-security posture, threats, details on the financial impact of various cyber-activities, and so on.
Which of the following sources will help the analyst to collect the required intelligence?
- A. Campaign reports, malware, incident reports, attack group reports, human intelligence
- B. Active campaigns, attacks on other organizations, data feeds from external third parties
- C. OSINT, CTI vendors, ISAO/ISACs
- D. Human, social media, chat rooms
Answer: C
Explanation:
For gathering strategic threat intelligence that provides a high-level overview of the current cybersecurity posture, potential financial impacts of cyber activities, and overarching threats, sources such as Open Source Intelligence (OSINT), Cyber Threat Intelligence (CTI) vendors, and Information Sharing and Analysis Organizations (ISAOs)/Information Sharing and Analysis Centers (ISACs) are invaluable. OSINT involves collecting data from publicly available sources, CTI vendors specialize in providing detailed threat intelligence services, and ISAOs/ISACs facilitate the sharing of threat data within specific industries or communities. These sources can provide broad insights into threat landscapes, helping organizations understand how to align their cybersecurity strategies with current trends and threats.References:
* "Cyber Threat Intelligence: Sources and Methods," by Max Kilger, Ph.D., SANS Institute Reading Room
* "Open Source Intelligence (OSINT): An Introduction to the Basic Concepts and the Potential Benefits for Information Security," by Kevin Cardwell, IEEE Xplore
NEW QUESTION # 20
What is the most recent NIST standard for incident response?
- A. 800-53r3
- B. 800-61r3
- C. 800-171r2
- D. 800-61r2
Answer: D
Explanation:
As of my last update, the most recent NIST standard for incident response was NIST Special Publication 800-
61 Revision 2 (800-61r2), titled "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide." This document provides guidelines for establishing an effective incident response program, including preparation, detection and analysis, containment, eradication, recovery, and post-incident activity.
References:The document is a key resource in the field of incident response, frequently cited in the CREST CPTIA curriculum for its comprehensive guidelines on managing and responding to cybersecurity incidents.
NEW QUESTION # 21
An organization named Sam Morison Inc. decided to use cloud-based services to reduce the cost of maintenance. The organization identified various risks and threats associated with cloud service adoption and migrating business-critical data to thirdparty systems. Hence, the organization decided to deploy cloud-based security tools to prevent upcoming threats.
Which of the following tools help the organization to secure the cloud resources and services?
- A. Alert Logic
- B. Burp Suite
- C. Nmap
- D. Wireshark
Answer: A
Explanation:
Alert Logic is a cloud-based security tool that provides Security-as-a-Service solutions including threat management, vulnerability assessment, and improved security outcomes. It is designed specifically to secure cloud resources and services, making it an ideal choice for organizations like Sam Morison Inc. that are moving their operations to the cloud and are concerned about the security of their data. Tools like Nmap, Burp Suite, and Wireshark, while valuable in certain contexts, do not offer the same cloud-focused security capabilities as Alert Logic.
NEW QUESTION # 22
If a hacker cannot find any other way to attack an organization, they can influence an employee or a disgruntled staff member. What type of threat is this?
- A. Phishing attack
- B. Identity theft
- C. Insider attack
- D. Footprinting
Answer: C
Explanation:
If a hacker influences an employee or a disgruntled staff member to gain access to an organization's resources or sensitive information, this is classified as an insider attack. Insider attacks are perpetrated by individuals within the organization, such as employees, contractors, or business associates, who have inside information concerning the organization's security practices, data, and computer systems. The threat from insiders can be intentional, as in the case of a disgruntled employee seeking to harm the organization, or unintentional, where an employee is manipulated or coerced by external parties without realizing the implications of their actions.
Phishing attacks, footprinting, and identity theft represent different types of cybersecurity threats where the attacker's method or objective differs from that of insider attacks.References:The CREST program addresses various types of threats, including insider threats, emphasizing the importance of recognizing and mitigating risks posed by individuals within the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Bran is an incident handler who is assessing the network of the organization. In the process, he wants to detect ping sweep attempts on the network using Wireshark tool.
Which of the following Wireshark filter he must use to accomplish this task?
- A. icmp.seq
- B. icmp.redir_gw
- C. icmp.ident
- D. icmp.type==8
Answer: D
Explanation:
In Wireshark, the filtericmp.type==8is used to detect ping sweep attempts. ICMP type 8 messages are echo requests, which are used in ping operations to check the availability of a network device. A ping sweep involves sending ICMP echo requests to multiple addresses to discover active devices on a network. By filtering for ICMP type 8 messages in Wireshark, Bran can identify these echo requests, helping to pinpoint ping sweep activities on the network.
References:Wireshark, as a network protocol analyzer, is frequently discussed in the CREST CPTIA program, with particular emphasis on its utility in detecting network reconnaissance activities like ping sweeps through specific filter usage.
NEW QUESTION # 24
An analyst is conducting threat intelligence analysis in a client organization, and during the information gathering process, he gathered information from the publicly available sources and analyzed to obtain a rich useful form of intelligence. The information source that he used is primarily used for national security, law enforcement, and for collecting intelligence required for business or strategic decision making.
Which of the following sources of intelligence did the analyst use to collect information?
- A. SIGINT
- B. OPSEC
- C. ISAC
- D. OSINT
Answer: D
Explanation:
The analyst used Open Source Intelligence (OSINT) to gather information from publicly available sources.
OSINT involves collecting and analyzing information from publicly accessible sources to produce actionable intelligence. This can include media reports, public government data, professional and academic publications, and information available on the internet. OSINT is widely used for national security, law enforcement, and business intelligence purposes, providing a rich source of information for making informed decisions and understanding the threat landscape.References:
* "Open Source Intelligence (OSINT) Tools and Techniques," by SANS Institute
* "The Role of OSINT in Cybersecurity and Threat Intelligence," by Recorded Future
NEW QUESTION # 25
During the process of detecting and containing malicious emails, incident responders should examine the originating IP address of the emails.
The steps to examine the originating IP address are as follow:
1. Search for the IP in the WHOIS database
2. Open the email to trace and find its header
3. Collect the IP address of the sender from the header of the received mail
4. Look for the geographic address of the sender in the WHOIS database
Identify the correct sequence of steps to be performed by the incident responders to examine originating IP address of the emails.
- A. 2-->1-->4-->3
- B. 2-->3-->1-->4
- C. 4-->1-->2-->3
- D. 1-->3-->2-->4
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct sequence to examine the originating IP address of emails involves first accessing the email's header to locate the IP address, then using external resources to investigate that address further. The steps are as follows:
* Step 2:Open the email to trace and find its header. This is the initial step because the header contains valuable information about the email's journey across the internet, including the originating IP address.
* Step 3:Collect the IP address of the sender from the header of the received mail. This detail is crucial for the next steps in the investigation.
* Step 1:Search for the IP in the WHOIS database. This database can provide information about the owner of the IP address, including the ISP and sometimes the geographic location.
* Step 4:Look for the geographic address of the sender in the WHOIS database. With the IP address information obtained from the WHOIS search, the geographic location or the originating country of the email can often be deduced, contributing to the analysis of the email's legitimacy.
References:The process of analyzing email headers to trace originating IP addresses and further investigating those addresses is a common practice in incident response, covered under the digital forensics and email analysis topics within the CREST CPTIA curriculum by EC-Council.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Stanley works as an incident responder at a top MNC based out of Singapore. He was asked to investigate a cybersecurity incident that recently occurred in the company.
While investigating the crime, he collected the evidence from the victim systems. He must present this evidence in a clear and comprehensible manner to the members of jury so that the evidence explains the facts clearly and further helps in obtaining an expert opinion on the same to confirm the investigation process.
In the above scenario, what is the characteristic of the digital evidence Stanley tried to preserve?
- A. Admissible
- B. Believable
- C. Authentic
- D. Complete
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the scenario described, Stanley aims to ensure that the digital evidence he collected is admissible in court.
This means the evidence must be gathered, handled, and presented in a manner that complies with legal standards, ensuring it can be legally used in a trial. Admissibility is a crucial characteristic of digital evidence, as it must be relevant, authentic, and obtained without violating any laws or rights to privacy. The evidence must also be presented in a clear and comprehensible manner to be understood by the members of the jury, which further supports its admissibility in court.References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification materials cover the legal aspects of handling digital evidence, including the principles ensuring evidence is admissible in court.
NEW QUESTION # 27
In which of the following types of insider threats an insider who is uneducated on potential security threats or simply bypasses general security procedures to meet workplace efficiency?
- A. Malicious insider
- B. Professional insider
- C. Compromised insider
- D. Negligent insider
Answer: D
Explanation:
A negligent insider is an individual within an organization who, due to a lack of knowledge on security threats or in an attempt to increase workplace efficiency, inadvertently bypasses security procedures or makes errors that compromise security. This type of insider threat is not malicious in intent; rather, it stems from carelessness, oversight, or a lack of proper security training. Such insiders might click on phishing links, mishandle sensitive information, or use unsecured networks for work-related tasks, thereby exposing the organization to potential security breaches. This contrasts with compromised insiders (who are manipulated by external parties), professional insiders (who misuse their access for personal gain), and malicious insiders (who intentionally aim to harm the organization).References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) courses and study guides discuss different types of insider threats, emphasizing the importance of security awareness training to mitigate the risks associated with negligent insiders.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Jim works as a security analyst in a large multinational company. Recently, a group of hackers penetrated into their organizational network and used a data staging technique to collect sensitive data. They collected all sorts of sensitive data about the employees and customers, business tactics of the organization, financial information, network infrastructure information and so on.
What should Jim do to detect the data staging before the hackers exfiltrate from the network?
- A. Jim should identify the web shell running in the network by analyzing server access, error logs, suspicious strings indicating encoding, user agent strings, and so on.
- B. Jim should analyze malicious DNS requests, DNS payload, unspecified domains, and destination of DNS requests.
- C. Jim should monitor network traffic for malicious file transfers, file integrity monitoring, and event logs.
- D. Jim should identify the attack at an initial stage by checking the content of the user agent field.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the scenario described, where attackers have penetrated the network and are staging data for exfiltration, Jim should focus on monitoring network traffic for signs of malicious file transfers, implement file integrity monitoring, and scrutinize event logs. This approach is crucial for detecting unusual activity that could indicate data staging, such as large volumes of data being moved to uncommon locations, sudden changes in file integrity, or suspicious entries in event logs. Early detection of these indicators can help in identifying the staging activity before the data is exfiltrated from the network.References:
* NIST Special Publication 800-61 Rev. 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide"
* SANS Institute Reading Room, "Detecting Malicious Activity with DNS and NetFlow"
NEW QUESTION # 29
An attacker instructs bots to use camouflage mechanism to hide his phishing and malware delivery locations in the rapidly changing network of compromised bots. In this particular technique, a single domain name consists of multiple IP addresses.
Which of the following technique is used by the attacker?
- A. Dynamic DNS
- B. DNS zone transfer
- C. DNS interrogation
- D. Fast-Flux DNS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Fast-Flux DNS is a technique used by attackers to hide phishing and malware distribution sites behind an ever- changing network of compromised hosts acting as proxies. It involves rapidly changing the association of domain names with multiple IP addresses, making the detection and shutdown of malicious sites more difficult. This technique contrasts with DNS zone transfers, which involve the replication of DNS data across DNS servers, or Dynamic DNS, which typically involves the automatic updating of DNS records for dynamic IP addresses, but not necessarily for malicious purposes. DNS interrogation involves querying DNS servers to retrieve information about domain names, but it does not involve hiding malicious content. Fast-Flux DNS specifically refers to the rapid changes in DNS records to obfuscate the source of the malicious activity, aligning with the scenario described.References:
* SANS Institute InfoSec Reading Room
* ICANN (Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers) Security and Stability Advisory Committee
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which of the following GPG18 and Forensic readiness planning (SPF) principles states that "organizations should adopt a scenario based Forensic Readiness Planning approach that learns from experience gained within the business"?
- A. Principle 3
- B. Principle 5
- C. Principle 7
- D. Principle 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
The GPG18 and Forensic readiness planning (SPF) principles outline various guidelines to enhance an organization's readiness for forensic investigation and response. Principle 5, which suggests that organizations should adopt a scenario-based Forensic Readiness Planning approach that learns from experience gained within the business, emphasizes the importance of being prepared for a wide range of potential incidents by leveraging lessons learned from past experiences. This approach helps in continuously improving forensic readiness and response capabilities by adapting to the evolving threat landscape and organizational changes.
References:While specific documentation from GPG18 and SPF might detail these principles, the CREST CPTIA program by EC-Council covers the concept of forensic readiness planning, including adopting scenario-based approaches and learning from past incidents as a fundamental aspect of enhancing an organization's incident response and forensic capabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 31
A US Federal Agency network was the target of a DoS attack that prevented and impaired the normal authorized functionality of the networks. According to agency's reporting timeframe guidelines, this incident should be reported within 2 h of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing and the agency is unable to successfully mitigate the activity.
Which incident category of US Federal Agency does this incident belong to?
- A. CAT 1
- B. CAT 2
- C. CAT 5
- D. CAT 6
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the context of US Federal Agencies, incidents are categorized based on their impact on operations, assets, or individuals. A DoS attack that prevents or impairs the authorized functionality of networks and is still ongoing without successful mitigation efforts typically falls under Category 2 (CAT 2). This category is designated for incidents that have a significant impact, requiring immediate reporting and response. The reporting timeframe of within 2 hours as mentioned aligns with the urgency associated with CAT 2 incidents, emphasizing the need for swift action to address the attack and restore normal operations.References:US Federal incident response guidelines and the Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA)courses outline the categorization of cybersecurity incidents, detailing the response protocols for each category, including the reporting timeframes.
NEW QUESTION # 32
The following steps describe the key activities in forensic readiness planning:
1. Train the staff to handle the incident and preserve the evidence
2. Create a special process for documenting the procedure
3. Identify the potential evidence required for an incident
4. Determine the source of the evidence
5. Establish a legal advisory board to guide the investigation process
6. Identify if the incident requires full or formal investigation
7. Establish a policy for securely handling and storing the collected evidence
8. Define a policy that determines the pathway to legally extract electronic evidence with minimal disruption Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in forensic readiness planning.
- A. 3-->4-->8-->7-->6-->1-->2-->5
- B. 2-->3-->1-->4-->6-->5-->7-->8
- C. 1-->2-->3-->4-->5-->6-->7-->8
- D. 3-->1-->4-->5-->8-->2-->6-->7
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct sequence of steps involved in forensic readiness planning, based on the activities described, is as follows:
* Identify the potential evidence required for an incident.
* Determine the source of the evidence.
* Define a policy that determines the pathway to legally extract electronic evidence with minimal disruption.
* Establish a policy for securely handling and storing the collected evidence.
* Identify if the incident requires full or formal investigation.
* Train the staff to handle the incident and preserve the evidence.
* Create a special process for documenting the procedure.
* Establish a legal advisory board to guide the investigation process.This sequence ensures that an organization is prepared to handle incidents efficiently, with a focus on identifying relevant evidence and the legal context of its collection, followed by staff training and the establishment of guiding policies and advisory boards.References:Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) courses and study guides include discussions on forensic readiness planning, highlighting the importance of preparing organizations for effective legal and technical handling of incidents.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Andrews and Sons Corp. has decided to share threat information among sharing partners. Garry, a threat analyst, working in Andrews and Sons Corp., has asked to follow a trust model necessary to establish trust between sharing partners. In the trust model used by him, the first organization makes use of a body of evidence in a second organization, and the level of trust between two organizations depends on the degree and quality of evidence provided by the first organization.
Which of the following types of trust model is used by Garry to establish the trust?
- A. Mandated trust
- B. Validated trust
- C. Mediated trust
- D. Direct historical trust
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the trust model described, where trust between two organizations depends on the degree and quality of evidence provided by the first organization, the model in use is 'Validated Trust.' This model relies on the validation of evidence or credentials presented by one party to another to establish trust. The validation process assesses the credibility, reliability, and relevance of the information shared, forming the basis of the trust relationship between the sharing partners. This approach is common in threat intelligence sharing where the accuracy and reliability of shared information are critical.References:
* "Building a Cybersecurity Culture," ISACA
* "Trust Models in Information Security," Journal of Internet Services and Applications
NEW QUESTION # 34
Investigator Ian gives you a drive image to investigate. What type of analysis are you performing?
- A. Live
- B. Dynamic
- C. Real-time
- D. Static
Answer: D
Explanation:
When Investigator Ian gives you a drive image to investigate, the type of analysis you are performing is static analysis. Static analysis involves examining the contents of a drive, file, or binary without executing the system or the application. It's about analyzing the data at rest. This type of analysis is crucial for forensics investigations because it allows for the examination of files, directories, and system information without altering any state or data, thereby preserving the integrity of the evidence. Static analysis is contrasted with dynamic analysis, which involves analyzing a system in operation (real-time or live) or executing the application to observe its behavior.References:Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) courses and study guides highlight the importance of static analysis in digital forensics, detailing methods for examining disk images, files, and other digital artifacts to gather evidence without compromising its integrity.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Cybersol Technologies initiated a cyber-threat intelligence program with a team of threat intelligence analysts. During the process, the analysts started converting the raw data into useful information by applying various techniques, such as machine-based techniques, and statistical methods.
In which of the following phases of the threat intelligence lifecycle is the threat intelligence team currently working?
- A. Analysis and production
- B. Planning and direction
- C. Dissemination and integration
- D. Processing and exploitation
Answer: D
Explanation:
The phase where threat intelligence analysts convert raw data into useful information by applying various techniques, such as machine learning or statistical methods, is known as 'Processing and Exploitation'. During this phase, collected data is processed, standardized, and analyzed to extract relevant information. This is a critical step in the threat intelligence lifecycle, transforming raw data into a format that can be further analyzed and turned into actionable intelligence in the subsequent 'Analysis and Production' phase.References:
* "Intelligence Analysis for Problem Solvers" by John E. McLaughlin
* "The Cyber Intelligence Tradecraft Project: The State of Cyber Intelligence Practices in the United States (Unclassified Summary)" by the Carnegie Mellon University's Software Engineering Institute
NEW QUESTION # 36
Jame, a professional hacker, is trying to hack the confidential information of a target organization. He identified the vulnerabilities in the target system and created a tailored deliverable malicious payload using an exploit and a backdoor to send it to the victim.
Which of the following phases of cyber kill chain methodology is Jame executing?
- A. Exploitation
- B. Weaponization
- C. Reconnaissance
- D. Installation
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the cyber kill chain methodology, the phase where Jame is creating a tailored malicious deliverable that includes an exploit and a backdoor is known as 'Weaponization'. During this phase, the attacker prepares by coupling a payload, such as a virus or worm, with an exploit into a deliverable format, intending to compromise the target's system. This step follows the initial 'Reconnaissance' phase, where the attacker gathers information on the target, and precedes the 'Delivery' phase, where the weaponized bundle is transmitted to the target. Weaponization involves the preparation of the malware to exploit the identified vulnerabilities in the target system.References:
* Lockheed Martin's Cyber Kill Chain framework
* "Intelligence-Driven Computer Network Defense Informed by Analysis of Adversary Campaigns and Intrusion Kill Chains," leading to the development of the Cyber Kill Chain framework
NEW QUESTION # 37
Joe works as a threat intelligence analyst with Xsecurity Inc. He is assessing the TI program by comparing the project results with the original objectives by reviewing project charter. He is also reviewing the list of expected deliverables to ensure that each of those is delivered to an acceptable level of quality.
Identify the activity that Joe is performing to assess a TI program's success or failure.
- A. Identifying areas of further improvement
- B. Determining the costs and benefits associated with the program
- C. Conducting a gap analysis
- D. Determining the fulfillment of stakeholders
Answer: C
Explanation:
By assessing the Threat Intelligence (TI) program through a comparison of project results with the original objectives, and by ensuring that all expected deliverables have been produced to an acceptable quality level, Joe is conducting a gap analysis. Gap analysis involves identifying the difference between the current state and the desired state or objectives, in this case, the outcomes of the TI program versus its intended goals as outlined in the project charter. This process allows for the assessment of what was successful, what fell short, and where improvements can be made, thereby evaluating the program's overall effectiveness and identifying areas for future enhancement.References:
* "Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK)" by the Project Management Institute
* "Intelligence Analysis: A Target-Centric Approach" by Robert M. Clark
NEW QUESTION # 38
Mr. Smith is a lead incident responder of a small financial enterprise having few branches in Australia. Recently, the company suffered a massive attack losing USD 5 million through an inter-banking system. After in-depth investigation on the case, it was found out that the incident occurred because 6 months ago the attackers penetrated the network through a minor vulnerability and maintained the access without any user being aware of it. Then, he tried to delete users' fingerprints and performed a lateral movement to the computer of a person with privileges in the inter-banking system.
Finally, the attacker gained access and did fraudulent transactions.
Based on the above scenario, identify the most accurate kind of attack.
- A. Denial-of-service attack
- B. Phishing
- C. Ransomware attack
- D. APT attack
Answer: D
Explanation:
The scenario described fits the characteristics of an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) attack. APTs are sophisticated, stealthy, and continuous computer hacking processes often orchestratedby groups targeting a specific entity. These attackers penetrate the network through vulnerabilities, maintain access without detection, and achieve their objectives, such as data exfiltration or financial theft, over an extended period.
The fact that attackers exploited a minor vulnerability, maintained access for six months, and performed lateral movements to access critical systems for fraudulent transactions highlights the strategic planning and persistence typical of APT attacks.References:Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification materials discuss APTs in detail, including their methodologies, objectives, and the importance of comprehensive security strategies to detect and mitigate such threats.
NEW QUESTION # 39
James is working as an incident responder at CyberSol Inc. The management instructed James to investigate a cybersecurity incident that recently happened in the company. As a part of the investigation process, James started collecting volatile information from a system running on Windows operating system.
Which of the following commands helps James in determining all the executable files for running processes?
- A. top
- B. doskey/history
- C. netstat -ab
- D. cate A &. time ,/t
Answer: C
Explanation:
Thenetstat -abcommand is useful in Windows operating systems for displaying all connections and listening ports, along with the executable involved in creating each connection or listening port. This can be particularly valuable for an incident responder like James when attempting to determine which processes are running on a system and how they are communicating over the network. This information can help identify malicious processes, unauthorized connections, or other signs of compromise on the system. Whilenetstat -ab does not exclusively list executable files for running processes, it ties processes to network activity, which is a critical part of collecting volatile information during a cybersecurity incident investigation.
References:The Certified Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) course by EC-Council covers various commands and tools that can be used to collect volatile data from systems as part of incident response activities, highlighting the importance of understanding network connections and the processes responsible for them.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following is a standard framework that provides recommendations for implementing information security controls for organizations that initiate, implement, or maintain information security management systems (ISMSs)?
- A. ISO/IEC 27035
- B. PCI DSS
- C. RFC 219G
- D. ISO/IEC 27002
Answer: D
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27002 is a standard that provides best practice recommendations on information security controls for use by those responsible for initiating, implementing, or maintaining information security management systems (ISMSs). It covers areas such as risk assessment, human resource security, operational security, and communications security, among others, providing a framework for establishing, implementing, operating, monitoring, reviewing, maintaining, and improving an ISMS. ISO/IEC 27035 pertains to information security incident management, PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) deals with the security of cardholder data, and RFC 2196 is a guide for computer security incident response teams (CSIRTs), not a standard for implementing ISMSs.References:The CREST CPTIA curriculum includes the study of various standards and frameworks that support information security management and governance, including ISO/IEC
27002, highlighting its role in guiding organizations in implementing effective security controls.
NEW QUESTION # 41
......
Reliable Study Materials for CPTIA Exam Success For Sure: https://www.prep4king.com/CPTIA-exam-prep-material.html
Get Unlimited Access to CPTIA Certification Exam Cert Guide: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1WGWgNUVvtYy4KvQm_R0oW767AVkCm9G4
