Updated Mar-2022 Test Engine to Practice 8008 Test Questions
8008 Real Exam Questions Test Engine Dumps Training With 359 Questions
NEW QUESTION 184
Which of the following statements is true?
I. Real Time Gross Systems (RTGS) for large value payments consume less system liquidity than Deferred Net Systems (DNS) II. The US Fedwire is an example of a Real Time Gross System III. Current disclosure requirements in relation to liquidity risk as laid down in the Basel framework require banks to disclose how liquidity stress scenarios were formulated IV. A CFP (Contingency Funding Plan) provides access to Central Bank financing
- A. I, II, III and IV
- B. II and IV
- C. II
- D. I and III
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is choice 'd'
For settlement of interbank payments, there are broadly two kinds of systems: RTGS (Real Time Gross Systems) and Deferred Net Systems (DNS). RTGS process payments in real time, settlement by settlement, and each transaction is settled by the a clearing institution (mostly the central bank) on a gross basis without regard for other settlements affecting the counterparty. DNS systems, on the other hand, allow for debiting or crediting the accounts of counterparties at periodic intervals after netting all payments paid or received since the last settlement. The exact timing of the payments does not matter so long as a bank has sufficient funding on a net basis at settlement time. Implicit in the DNS system is the extension of credit and liquidity by the central bank to the participating banks as it is possible for a bank to issue payment instructions even without having funds so long as they can arrange for such funds prior to settlement at the end of the day. In RTGS, a bank needs to have funds to make a payment at any point, and cannot make a payment against moneys expected to be received later intra-day. RTGS systems therefore need more liquidity on the part of the participants, and consume far more liquidity than DNS arrangements. Of course, the 'liquidity' of the DNS arrangement has a cost - which is that someone is taking up settlement risk, and invariably it is the central bank. If a bank under DNS fails to settle, its transactions have to be 'unwound', ie all payments made by it have to be rolled back. This can cause other banks to trip, causing further unwinding transactions. RTGS systems do not carry this risk. Therefore statement I is not correct as RTGS consume more liquidity than DNS arrangements.
Statement II is correct. US Fedwire or European TARGET are RTGS while CHIPS is a DNS based payment system.
Statement III is not correct. Current Basel requirements do not require any disclosure in respect of liquidity risk management. A consultative paper was issued by BIS in Dec 2009 for comments from members, but it is far from final. The BIS is still reacting to the liquidity issues that arose during the 2007-09 credit crisis.
Statement IV is not correct as a CFP is like a disaster recovery plan for liquidity, ie it helps a bank plan for and think about what steps would be taken to deal with a liquidity disaster situation. It does not provide any access to central bank financing.
NEW QUESTION 185
Which of the following would not be a part of the principal component structure of the term structure of futures prices?
- A. Parallel component
- B. Trend component
- C. Tilt component
- D. Curvature component
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The trend component refers to parallel shifts in the term structure, the tilt refers to changes in the shape of the term structure at the long and short ends, and the curvature refers to movements in the medium term part. The phrase 'parallel component' has no meaning and is not a part of the principal components in analyzing term structures.
Changes in the term structure can also be analyzed as "level, slope and curvature", so you should be aware of this terminology as well to refer to the principal components of a term structure analysis.
NEW QUESTION 186
When compared to a high severity low frequency risk, the operational risk capital requirement for a low severity high frequency risk is likely to be:
- A. Zero
- B. Higher
- C. Lower
- D. Unaffected by differences in frequency or severity
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
High frequency and low severity risks, for example the risks of fraud losses for a credit card issuer, may have high expected losses, but low unexpected losses. In other words, we can generally expect these losses to stay within a small expected and known range. The capital requirement will be the worst case losses at a given confidence level less expected losses, and in such cases this can be expected to be low.
On the other hand, medium severity medium frequency risks, such as the risks of unexpected legal claims,
'fat-finger' trading errors, will have low expected losses but a high level of unexpected losses. Thus the capital requirement for such risks will be high.
It is also worthwhile mentioning high severity and low frequency risks - for example a rogue trader circumventing all controls and bringing the bank down, or a terrorist strike or natural disaster creating other losses - will probably have zero expected losses & high unexpected losses but only at very high levels of confidence. In other words, operational risk capital is unlikely to provide for such events and these would lie in the part of the tail that is not covered by most levels of confidence when calculating operational risk capital.
Note that risk capital is required for only unexpected losses as expected losses are to be borne by P&L reserves. Therefore the operational risk capital requirements for a low severity high frequency risk is likely to be low when compared to other risks that are lower frequency but higher severity.
Thus Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION 187
Which of the following was not a policy response introduced by Basel 2.5 in response to the global financial crisis:
- A. Comprehensive Risk Model (CRM)
- B. Comprehensive Capital Analysis and Review (CCAR)
- C. Incremental Risk Charge (IRC)
- D. Stressed VaR (SVaR)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The CCAR is a supervisory mechanism adopted by the US Federal Reserve Bank to assess capital adequacy for bank holding companies it supervises. It was not a concept introduced by the international Basel framework.
The other three were indeed rules introduced by Basel 2.5, which was ultimately subsumed into Basel III.
Stressed VaR is just the standard 99%/10 day VaR, calculated with the assumption that relevant market factors are under stress.
The Incremental Risk Charge (IRC) is an estimate of default and migration risk of unsecuritized credit products in the trading book. (Though this may sound like a credit risk term, it relates to market risk - for example, a bond rated A being downgraded to BBB. In the old days, the banking book where loans to customers are held was the primary source of credit risk, but with OTC trading and complex products the trading book also now holds a good deal of credit risk. Both IRC and CRM account for these.) While IRC considers only non-securitized products, the CRM (Comprehensive Risk Model) considers securitized products such as tranches, CDOs, and correlation based instruments.
The IRC, SVaR and CRM complement standard VaR by covering risks that are not included in a standard VaR model. Their results are therefore added to the VaR for capital adequacy determination.
NEW QUESTION 188
Which of the following are valid methods for selecting an appropriate model from the model space for severity estimation:
I. Cross-validation method
II. Bootstrap method
III. Complexity penalty method
IV. Maximum likelihood estimation method
- A. All of the above
- B. I and IV
- C. I, II and III
- D. II and III
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Once we have a number of distributions in the model space, the task is to select the "best" distribution that is likely to be a good estimate of true severity. We have a number of distributions to pick from, an empirical dataset (from internal or external losses), and we can estimate the parameters for the different distributions.
We then have to decide which distribution to pick, and that generally requires considering both approximation and fitting errors.
There are three methods that are generally used for selecting a model:
1. The cross-validation method: This method divides the available data into two parts - the training set, and the validation set (the validation set is also called the 'testing set'). Parameter estimation for each distribution is done using the training set, and differences are then calculated based on the validation set. Though the temptation may be to use the entire data set to estimate the parameters, that is likely to result in what may appear to be an excellent fit to the data on which it is based, but without any validation. So we estimate the parameters based on one part of the data (the training set), and check the differences we get from the remaining data (the validation set).
2. Complexity penalty method: This is similar to the cross-validation method, but with an additional consideration of the complexity of the model. This is because more complex models are likely to produce a more exact fit than simpler models, this may be a spurious thing - and therefore a 'penalty' is added to the more complex models as to favor simplicity over complexity. The 'complexity' of a model may be measured by the number of parameters it has, for example, a log-normal distribution has only two parameters while a body-tail distribution combining two different distributions may have many more.
3. The bootstrap method: The bootstrap method estimates fitting error by drawing samples from the empirical loss dataset, or the fit already obtained, and then estimating parameters for each draw which are compared using some statistical technique. If the samples are drawn from the loss dataset, the technique is called a non-parametric bootstrap, and if the sample is drawn from an estimated model distribution, it is called a parametric bootstrap.
4. Using goodness of fit statistics: The candidate fits can be compared using MLE based on the KS distance, for example, and the best one selected. Maximum likelihood estimation is a technique that attempts to maximize the likelihood of the estimate to be as close to the true value of the parameter. It is a general purpose statistical technique that can be used for parameter estimation technique, as well as for deciding which distribution to use from the model space.
All the choices listed are the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION 189
Which of the following methods cannot be used to calculate Liquidity at Risk?
- A. Analytical or parametric approaches
- B. Monte Carlo simulation
- C. Historical simulation
- D. Scenario analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Analytical or parametric approaches are not useful at all for liquidity at risk calculations because there are no neat distributions available to parameterize the large number of factors that affect the calculations of liquidity inflows and outflows. Historical simulations, Monte Carlo and scenario analysis (which can complement historical scenarios) are all valid choices
NEW QUESTION 190
The cumulative probability of default for a security for 4 years is 11.47%. The marginal probability of default for the security for year 5 is 5% during year 5. What is the cumulative probability of default for the security for 5 years?
- A. None of the above
- B. 15.90%
- C. 5.00%
- D. 16.47%
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The cumulative probability of default for the security for the 5 years is [1 - (1 - probability of default upto year
4)*(1 - probability of default in year 5)]. An easier way to think about this is that the Probability of survival till year 5 = (Probability of survival till year 4 * Probability of survival during year 5). Using the relationship that probability of default = 1 - probability of survival, we can calculate the required probability in all cases.
In this case, the cumulative probability of default for the security for 5 years = 1 - (1 - 11.47%)*(1 - 5%) =
15.8695%, therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION 191
If EV be the expected value of a firm's assets in a year, and DP be the 'default point' per the KMV approach to credit risk, and be the standard deviation of future asset returns, then the distance-to-default is given by:
A)
B)
C)
D)
- A. Option C
- B. Option B
- C. Option A
- D. Option D
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The distance to default is the number of standard deviations that expected asset values are away from the default point. The expression in Choice 'd' represents distance to default. Choice 'd' is the correct answer. The other choices are incorrect.
NEW QUESTION 192
The degree distribution of the nodes of the financial network is:
- A. normally distributed
- B. non-linear
- C. long tailed
- D. best approximated by a beta distribution
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The 'degree' of a node in a network measures the number of links to other nodes. For the financial network, each market participant can be thought of as a node. The 'degree distribution' can be thought of as the histogram of the number of links for each node.
The financial network has a degree distribution with rather long tails - and therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer. The other choices are incorrect. Long tailed networks have the property that they are robust when affected by random disturbances, but susceptible to targeted attacks, for example on key hubs.
NEW QUESTION 193
Which of the following are a CRO's responsibilities:
I. Statutory financial reporting
II. Reporting to the audit committee
III. Compliance with risk regulatory standards
IV. Operational risk
- A. All of the above
- B. II and IV
- C. III and IV
- D. I and II
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Statutory financial reporting is the responsibility of the Chief Financial Officer, not the Chief Risk Officer.
The head of internal audit reports to the audit committee of the board, not the CRO. Therefore statements I and II are incorect.
The CRO is generally expected to drive risk and compliance with related regulatory standards. Market risk, credit risk and operational risk groups report into the CRO, so statements III and IV are correct.
NEW QUESTION 194
What would be the consequences of a model of economic risk capital calculation that weighs all loans equally regardless of the credit rating of the counterparty?
I. Create an incentive to lend to the riskiest borrowers
II. Create an incentive to lend to the safest borrowers
III. Overstate economic capital requirements
IV. Understate economic capital requirements
- A. III only
- B. I only
- C. I and IV
- D. II and III
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
If capital calculations are done in a standard way regardless of risk (as reflected by credit ratings), then it creates a perverse incentive for the lenders' employees to lend to the riskiest borrowers that offer the highest expected returns as there is no incentive to 'save' on economic capital requirements that are equal for both safe and unsafe borrowers. Therefore statement I is correct.
Given that the portfolio of such an institution is likely to then comprise poor quality borrowers, and economic capital would be based upon 'average' expected ratings, it is likely to carry lower economic capital given its exposures. Therefore any such economic risk capital model is likely to understate economic capital requirements. Therefore statement IV is correct.
Statements II and III are incorrect and Choice 'b' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION 195
Which of the following are measures of liquidity risk
I. Liquidity Coverage Ratio
II. Net Stable Funding Ratio
III. Book Value to Share Price
IV. Earnings Per Share
- A. I and II
- B. III and IV
- C. I and IV
- D. II and III
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
In December 2009 the BIS came out with a new consultative document on liquidity risk. Given the events of
2007 - 2009, it has been clear that a key characteristic of the financial crisis was the inaccurate and ineffective management of liquidity risk The paper two separate but complementary objectives in respect of liquidity risk management: The first objective relates to the short-term liquidity risk profile of institution, and the second objective is to promote resiliency over longer-term time horizons. The paper identifies the following two ratios - you should be aware of these - though I am not sure if these will show up in the PRMIA exam:
1. Liquidity Coverage Ratio addresses the ability of an institution to survive an acute liquidity risk stress scenario lasting one month. It is calculated as follows:
Liquidity Coverage Ratio = Stock of high quality liquid assets/Net cash outflows over a 30-day time period
2. Net Stable Funding Ratio has been developed to capture structural issues related to funding choices.
Net Stable Funding Ratio = Available amount of stable funding/Required amount of stable funding Both ratios should be equal to or greater than 1. The statement contains detailed definitions of what is included or excluded from each of the terms used in the calculations for each of the ratios. In addition, the standard also describes the what the 'acute' scenario should include (things such as a 3 notch credit downgrade, reduction in retail deposits etc) Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer. Book Value to Share Price and Earnings Per Share are accounting measures unrelated to liquidity.
NEW QUESTION 196
A portfolio has two loans, A and B, each worth $1m. The probability of default of loan A is 10% and that of loan B is 15%. The probability of both loans defaulting together is 1%. Calculate the expected loss on the portfolio.
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The easiest way to answer this question is to ignore the joint probability of default as that is irrelevant to expected losses. The joint probability of default impacts the volatility of the losses, but not the expected amount. One way to think about it is to think of asset portfolios, where diversification reduces risk (ie standard deviation) but the expected returns are nothing but the average of the expected returns in the portfolio. Just as the expected returns of the portfolio are not affected by the volatility or correlations (these affect standard deviation), in the same way the joint probability of default does not affect the expected losses. Therefore the expected losses for this portfolio are simply $1m x 10% + $1m x 15% = $250,000.
This can also be seen from the lens of a joint probability distribution as follows:
There are four possibilities for this portfolio:
- Only loan A defaults: loss of $1m: 9% probability
- Only loan B defaults: loss of $1m: 14% probability
- Both loan A and B default: loss of $2m: 1% probability
- Neither A nor B default: loss of $0m: 76% probability
Therefore the expected losses on the portfolio are ($1m x 9%) + ($1m x 14%) + ($2m x 1%) + ($0m x 76%) =
$250,000.
(Notes: How is the above table calculated? The totals (10%, 90%, 15% and 85%) are filled in first. The top left cell (both A & B default) is given as 1%. We can now calculate the rest of the cells as the totals are known.)
NEW QUESTION 197
For an option position with a delta of 0.3, calculate VaR if the VaR of the underlying is $100.
- A. 33.33
- B. 0
- C. 1
- D. 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The first order approximation of the VaR of an option position is nothing but the VaR of the underlying multiplied by the option's delta. This is intuitive because the delta is the sensitivity of the option price to changes in the prices of the underlying, and in this case since the delta is 0.3 and the underlying's VaR is $100, the VaR of the options position is 0.3 x $100 = $30. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
(Note that the second order approximation of the VaR of an options position considers the option gamma too, and VaR reduces if gamma increases.)
NEW QUESTION 198
Which of the following risks and reasons justify the use of scenario analysis in operational risk modeling:
I. Risks for which no internal loss data is available
II. Risks that are foreseeable but have no precedent, internally or externally III. Risks for which objective assessments can be made by experts IV. Risks that are known to exist, but for which no reliable external or internal losses can be analyzed
V. Reducing the complexity of having to fit statistical models to internal and external loss data VI. Managing the capital estimation process as to produce estimates in line with management's desired capital buffers.
- A. All of the above
- B. I, II, III and IV
- C. V
- D. I, II and III
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
All the reasons and risks presented above are valid reasons for using scenario analysis, except V and VI - ie, the need to reduce the complexity of calculations is not a valid reason for using scenario analysis. Similarly, making operational risk capital estimates match management's desired capital allocation targets is also not a valid reason. Capital calculations are intended to provide adequate capital for managing the risk from operations, regardless of what management may desire them to be.
NEW QUESTION 199
Which of the following event types is hacking damage classified under Basel II operational risk classifications?
- A. Information security
- B. Technology risk
- C. External fraud
- D. Damage to physical assets
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Choice 'b' is the correct answer. All other answers are incorrect.
Refer to the detailed loss event type classification under Basel II (see Annex 9 of the accord). You should know the exact names of all loss event types, and examples of each.
NEW QUESTION 200
Which of the following are elements of 'group risk':
I. Market risk
II. Intra-group exposures
III. Reputational contagion
IV. Complex group structures
- A. I and IV
- B. II, III and IV
- C. I and II
- D. II and III
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The term 'group risk' has been defined in the FSA document 08/24 on stress testing as the risk that a firm may be adversely affected by an occurrence (financial or non-financial) in another group entity or an occurrence that affects ther group as a whole. These risks may occur through:
- reputational contagion,
- financial contagion,
- leveraging,
- double or multiple gearing,
- concentrations and large exposures (particularly intra-group).
Thus, the insurance sector may be considered a group, and a firm may suffer just because another group firm has had losses or reputational issues.
The FSA statement goes on to identify some elements of group risk as follows:
- intra-group exposures (credit or operational exposures through outsourcing or service arrangements, as well as more standard business exposures);
- concentration risks (from credit, market or insurance risks which could put a strain on capital resources across entities simultaneously);
- contagion (reputational damage, operational or financial pressures); and
- complex group structures (with dependencies, complex split of responsibilities and accountabilities).
Therefore Choice 'a' is the correct answer and the rest of the choices are incorrect.
NEW QUESTION 201
Which of the following best describes economic capital?
- A. Economic capital is the amount of regulatory capital mandated for financial institutions in the OECD countries
- B. Economic capital is a form of provision for market risk losses should adverse conditions arise
- C. Economic capital reflects the amount of capital required to maintain a firm's target credit rating
- D. Economic capital is the amount of regulatory capital that minimizes the cost of capital for firm
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Economic capital is often calculated with a view to maintaining the credit ratings for a firm. It is the capital available to absorb unexpected losses, and credit ratings are also based upon a certain probability of default.
Economic capital is often calculated at a level equal to the confidence required for the desired credit rating.
For example, if the probability of default for a AA rating is 0.02%, and the firm desires to hold an AA rating, then economic capital maintained at a confidence level of 99.98% would allow for such a rating. In this case, economic capital set at a 99.8% level can be thought of as the level of losses that would not be exceeded with a 99.8% probability, and would help get the firm its desired credit rating.
Choice 'c' is the correct answer. Economic capital does not target minimizing the cost of capital, nor is it a provision for losses arising from market risk. The concept of economic capital is unrelated to where an institution or firm is based, therefore Choice 'a' is incorrect as well.
NEW QUESTION 202
......
8008 Actual Questions Answers PDF 100% Cover Real Exam Questions: https://www.prep4king.com/8008-exam-prep-material.html
